The Importance of Career Planning in Industry

the importance of Career Planning in industry. Career planning involves efforts on the part of the organizations to provide avenues for growth to its employees. Certainly this growth should be accompanied by development. The other side of the coin is the role of employees in career planning. It involves effort on the part of employees to clearly think through and decided areas in which they would like to make a career for themselves. When employees have assessed their career needs and have become aware of organizational career opportunities, the problem is one of alignment. The crucial role has to be played by HRD in ensuring this alignment to build up morale in the organization. A systematic choice of development techniques like training, special assignment, counseling and rotational assignments should be made to ensure this alignment. Employees are often uncertain as to the type of work that would suit them best. There are a number of evaluation instruments available to determine basic aptitudes. Human Resource Development Managers should be able to guide employees by administering these instruments on them. Employees should also find out whether they are loners or socially active. These exercises with some assistance from HRD Managers should help in career need assessment. At certain stage the upward mobility stops for many employees. This is inescapable in view of pyramid organizations structure. This phenomenon is called plateauing. It takes place around the age f 40. Some suggested measures to deal with such employees are: ? Mentors should be assigned measures to deal with such employees. Depending on the maturity of such mentors, good results can be achieved in assuaging the hurt feelings of plateaued employees ? Additional career ladders could be established to retain some valuable resource. Giving them importance by assigning them to some important task force or committee. ? Assisting them to choose a new career. Some organizations assist their plateau executives to start their own business. Career path models developed by a large public sector undertaking: This organization has developed career paths models for the major discipline †¢ Sales †¢ Technical services †¢ Operations †¢ Engineering †¢ Aviation †¢ LPG †¢ Finance †¢ Personnel Career path models have not been drawn for the disciplines like materials, public relations, training, etc. areer path models have been evolved to provide direction to career progression of officers. It forms the basis for placement, transfer, rotation etc. so that the officers are prepared for higher responsibilities progressively and the experience they gain becomes cumulative rather than respective. The most distinguishing feature of these career path model are the stress on jib rotation and testing the incumbent in a different environment to enhance his coping capability before giving him a higher position in the hierarchy.

Choices in Life Essay

Choices in life can be a very difficult thing. One decision in life can make or break your future. People can benefit from having many choices but having too many choices may also be bad. In the article â€Å"A Logical Choice† by Gary Belsky, he explains â€Å"They don’t realize that you can become paralyzed by too many choices and that increased options mean confusion.† (2) An important matter in life is the choice people have to make on where to attend college, what major you want to go into, and even enjoy the career you choose. Choosing the right college can be a difficult choice in someone’s life. Doing good in school can help someone’s decision on selecting a certain college. Every college is different and making the right choice is an important thing. Belsky states, â€Å"When it comes to choosing people are either maximizers or satisfiers.† (3) Maximizers will spend a lot of effort in searching for the top colleges for them to attend too. Satisfiers will try and find a college that is just good enough for them to do good in. When it comes to making a big decision, like choosing a college, it is always difficult making that decision by yourself. Finding someone to make that choice can always help, but you should always trust your own instincts. Trust your instincts and the right choice will come to you. When you make the decision to go to a certain college, it can help you get a good start in your career. College is the place that can help you start your career in the right direction. The career you choose makes your future the way it is. In order for you to be successful in your career, you need to go to the right college. Colleges have certain specialties they teach and choosing the right place can benefit you. Staying in college for a couple years can you help you be knowledgeable towards your career. College is just a place that helps you to become more successful for you to have a successful future and a stable life.

History Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words - 5

History - Essay Example ew Deal therefore was focused on improving the living standards of the rural people in American society by rightful and fair distribution of its land and other natural resources and new agricultural policies. A) American Women: American women served in the Second World War in all the departments like the Army, Navy, Air force and even the Coast Guard. They were indispensable and strived hard to tide over the massive attacks that caused so much of deaths and casualties. More than 200 army nurses lost their lives in World War II. World War II was the first time that allowed African American women to enroll. These women selflessly strived hard while working in some of the most inhuman of conditions. They cooked, cleaned, attended emergencies, did truck driving and administrative work. They worked on par with the men and are proud to have served their country so well. During and even after World War II, the American economy suffered miserably. After the blasting of Pearl Harbor where there was much destruction and loss of both life and property, the country’s industrial and civilian resources were harnessed by the Federal Government, to compensate the heavy losses incurred and therefore the economy suffered badly. The Truman doctrine was introduced by Harry S. Truman which suggested that aid would be provided by the United States to both Turkey and Greece for Military as well as other Political reasons. One of the political reasons was to ward of a communist threat. The Marshall Plan followed the Truman doctrine and served to bring about an economic restoration of Western Europe by implementing the NATO in 1949 (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) Truman understood that if Turkey and Greece were not given this timely aid, then they would naturally fall to Communism which would have adverse effects on the country. On the 4th of April 1949, a treaty was signed called the North Atlantic Treaty Organization. It was a military alliance with its headquarters in

Tougher than two Muthaf Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Tougher than two Muthaf - Essay Example The other shapes used are triangles, oval, and circles to create various features. For instance, the face has been masked with triangles in black and yellow creating a pattern. The lines include diagonal, vertical, and horizontal while another cross one another. The lines join to create the desired shapes in the image such as the coat and the mask. The composition is the arrangement of elements in the image to draw the attention of the viewer and in this image, the elements have been arranged to create unity by bringing everything together. The painting has a symmetrical balance creating the sense of calmness, as the man appears cool. The arrangement of lines, shapes, and texture in the image creates a focal point on the face. The different shapes used in the image create a rhythm moving the viewer’s eye to different parts of the image. All the elements in the image have unity, as they seem stuck together. Special attention has been given to the face to create an emphasis of a n African man. The masking of the face and use of blue glasses attracts the attention of the viewer towards the face. The pose on the man’s face also has been emphasized by unmasking the lips, which makes the image appear real since the rest of the face is masked. The image is painted to scale, and the size of the man is not exaggerated. Everything is in proportion, but the hair is abnormally rough and sluggish compared to that of a human being. This creates some emphasis and attracts the attention of the viewer to scrutinize it.

A STUDY OF AN UNKNOWN WEAK ACID Lab Report Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words

A STUDY OF AN UNKNOWN WEAK ACID - Lab Report Example A combination (pH-reference electrode) was obtained. A screw-like BNC connection of the electrode was inserted into the slot at the rear of the meter and turned (unsteady or sporadic readings could indicate a loose connection). The electrode was suspended from the meter arm and after which it was kept from drying out by placing it in a beaker of water. When it was ready to make measurements, the air hole under the knurl at the top was insured to be in the open position. The meter was then calibrated. The ATC probe was inserted in order to automatically monitor the temperature. After this the electrode was rinsed with the wash bottle and blotted dry (the electrode was not rubbed as this would cause static buildup and erroneous results). For the case of the sample, a trial run was carried out first to determine the required mass of unknown weak acid. For the trial run the sample need not be oven dry. About 0.1 g of the unknown sample was put into a 250mL beaker. The mass of sample taken for titration was adjusted, so that 30 to 40 mL of NaOH titrant was used to reach a pH of 10 or higher if no endpoint had been found. The remaining unknown acid was heated in the 600C oven for approximately 1 hour before weighing out the next sample portions. When ready to titrate, about 100 mL of water was added to the previously weighed sample. The beaker was then placed on the magnetic stirrer and stirred vigorously in order to dissolve. The electrode was immersed in the solution taking care not to hit the fragile glass bulb with the stir bar. Then the burette was placed over the beaker. This was then titrated by adding 0.5 mL increments, recording to 2 decimal places, and reading the pH meter after each addition. A quick preliminary titration was performed in order to determine the location of the end point(s), carrying the titration past pH = 10 until no significant change in pH occurred with

The Rise of Blogs in Media Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2000 words

The Rise of Blogs in Media - Essay Example More important than any other factor, it means that the way of communication is changing. It also means that ideas and opinions are going to be a way of growing on the Internet, as opposed to the polished facts that were seen in mainstream media. The rise of blogs is one which is bringing a mixture of the good, the bad and the ugly to those who are in media and communication. While most are excited about the boom in social media on the web, there is also two questions which many should ask. The first is: what does this mean about the information that is available? The second is: where will blogs lead in the future in creating new ways of communication and the interpretation of information. OKeefe, Kevin.   (2010).   "Blogging for Business by U.S. Companies on the Rise."   Retrieved from: http://kevin.lexblog.com/2010/09/articles/blog-basics/blogging-for-business-by-us-companies-on-the-rise-/.    One of the reasons why blogs are popular is because it gives room to design. If you just write a paper, essay or other print communication, you are limited to editing needs. However, with an online blog, you have complete digital freedom to do what you want with color, design and the overall look and feel, all which is a personal expression of what you want to retrieve to others. What most overlook with the designs of blogs is that it refers directly to the communication that you are using for others. Most don’t consider design as a strategic way of making a statement and instead get the best colors or the design that is most convenient. The number one problem with publishing blogs and the designs are used is the desire to put too much in too little of a space. Liquid content, calendars of posts, tag clouds, widgets and RSS feeds are some of the problems that are associated with blog design.  

Relationship between theory and practice in human resource management Essay

Relationship between theory and practice in human resource management - Essay Example In order for employees to improve their output, they have to be motivated.Motivation in itself takes many forms.But motivation must be seen to be taking place practically than just by the word of mouth.The human resource practitioners must understand the fact that different human resource persons are motivated by different motivators. As others may be motivated by better pay, others would be motivated if the working environment is conducive. Therefore it is important to understand the nature of each employee for motivation to be practically enhanced. Their areas of interest need be identified and motivation geared towards improving that area.The human resource practitioners can on a continuous basis give out questionnaires asking the employees questions such as: - where the management made improvements within the organization's area they fell should be improved etc. These should then be acted upon by management. By doing this the employees feel that they are part and parcel of the or ganization and this finally motivates them. Management should go to the extent of rewarding good performer in monetary terms, in kind e.g. through promotions etc. This would make everyone in the organization to work harder and achieve higher results. Other areas where motivation can be better shown in practice include better health and safety - No one likes working in unhygienic and unsafe conditions. Management should protect the employees from hazardous conditions... Practically the training and development must be seen in motion. Employees should be asked through their seniors to identify their training needs after which resources are set aside for training. This should then be related to promotions in the work place because employees will see the essence of training. Off -the job exercise and motivations: - Motivation can be further enhanced practically by managers through annual leaves by employees as this allows them to relax their minds Theory and Practice of Management Performance Management and Appraisal Performance management is the close monitoring of employees' results overtime. Appraisal is the rating on the performance. 3 It is not enough to theoretically apply performance management and appraisal. Performance appraisal starts with targets which the management has set. These should neither be too low nor too high. The employees would be rated on what they have achieved as compared with the expected/ targeted results. Not only should the final results be measured but also the time span at which they have been achieved. Clock cards should be introduced in the organization to indicate at what time they reported and the time they left, since idle time affects the level of performance achieved. The performance of one individual can also be checked by another. This is the system referred to as internal checks. It is mostly applied in written work -pieces where on employee peruses through the other's work. It also gives an employee the opportunity to learn from others thus improving his own performance and output. Performance management should entail getting feedback from the clients/ customers or any other stakeholders of the organization. Suggestion boxes can be

Writing a critique Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1000 words

Writing a critique - Assignment Example One of the most notable depictions of Othello was took place in 1988 at the Market Theatre in Johannesburg, South Africa. In this play, director Janet Suzman uses Shakespeare’s Othello as means of addressing the divisive South African issue of apartheid. This essay functions as a critique of Suzman’s interpretation of Shakespeare’s Othello the Merchant of Venice, with specific emphasis on the play’s function as an underlining metaphor for South African apartheid and racial tension. One of the first instances one witnesses director Suzman’s thematic intentions occurs when Othello first comes on stage. While the appearance the racial clash between Othello and Desdemona’s father Brabanzio always makes this a dramatically compelling scene, Suzman’s Othello is more than simply non-white. Actor John Kani is also non-European, with clear African descent. It’s not difficult to ascertain that this choice has been made deliberately to align the Othello character with Africans facing apartheid. Indeed, a number of critics have noted Suzman’s use of Kani’s non-European, African descent in this regard as, â€Å"a South African actor whose first language is not English and who therefore not only looked but – more than black British and American Othellos – sounded different† (Hankey, pg. 93). It’s this Afrikanerdom that Kani exudes which sets Suzamn’s Othello on a trajectory that situates the play n ot as concerned with the inter-racial relationship tensions as much as its 20th century overarching political concerns. While this critique does not function as a literary analysis, there are a number of notable characterizations of Suzman’s contemporary overarching political concerns that coincide with Shakespeare’s text. For instance, when Barbanzio encounters the all-white, general counsel about Othello’s marriage to Desdemonia, Othello is characterized as having utilized magic or illicit methods to gain

The Impact of an Exercise Tax on Demand, Supply, Price, and Quantity Essay

The Impact of an Exercise Tax on Demand, Supply, Price, and Quantity - Essay Example There are several factors that affect the price elasticity of demands. One of these factors is the level of prices. Expensive goods such as cars have a high elasticity of demand as a result of the sensitivity to price changes. On the other hand, the price elasticity of demand for inexpensive good such as matchboxes rarely changes the demand by a significant amount. Another factor that affects the price elasticity of demand is the income level. The elasticity of demand for any product is less in groups with higher income levels as compared to the low-income levels. This is as a result of the fact that the impact of prices changes is bigger to the poor people than the rich (Varian 320). The availability of a close substitute is another factor that affects the elasticity of demand. Demand for a product with many substitutes, for example, Pepsi is more elastic as compared to that with a few or no close substitutes such as salt. Lastly, the nature of a commodity is another factor that affects the price elasticity of demand. Necessity goods such as vegetables have inelastic demand while comfort goods such as refrigerators have elastic demand. Luxurious commodities such as cars have more elastic demand than comfort goods (Varian 323). For a consumer to maximize utility he must be at the consumer equilibrium condition. Economists express this condition by equating all of the marginal utilities per dollar that the consumer spends in buying a certain commodity. As seen from the above calculation, there is no single equation where the marginal utility per dollar is at equilibrium hence there is no combination where the consumer has the option of maximizing the utility.  

Production Control Essay Example for Free

Production Control Essay Spreading Cutting Sorting/Bundling Sewing/Assembling Inspection Pressing/ Finishing Final Inspection Packing Despatch Design / Sketch: In the garment manufacturing the first step is designing the sketch for the dresses that have to be prepared. For this purpose the designer first draw several rough sketches in the sketch book. The designer does not go for details at this moment but he rather let his creativity flow on the paper and he draws many sketches. Later these sketches are analyzed by a panel of designers. They finally select few out of them. These few sketches are rendered in detail separately or in the form of a single collection. The designer also draws working drawings along with the sketch. Working drawings are flat drawing of the sketch and it help  pattern maker  in understanding the patterns involved in the construction.  ·Ã‚  Pattern Design: The pattern maker now develop first pattern for the designsin any one standard size. This is made by pattern drafting method and the purpose of making this pattern is to create the sample garment for test fit.  ·Ã‚  Sample Making: The first patterns are sent to the sewing unit for assembling them into garment. This is usually stitched on calico or muslin which is an inferior quality of fabric and it reduces cost. This sample is constructed to analyze the pattern fit and design too. After the sample garment is stitched it is reviewed by a panel of designers, pattern makers and sewing specialists. If any changes have to be made they are made at this time.  · Production Pattern: The pattern design is now taken for creating the production patterns. The production pattern is one which will be used for huge production of garments. The pattern maker makes the patterns on standard pattern making paper. These papers are made-up of various grades. The most important component, the tissue paper pattern, is made from the lightest and thinnest paper commercially available (it is not made at the pattern companies). It is called 7. 5 lb (3. 4 kg) basis paper, meaning that a ream of it (500 sheets) only weighs

Compare and Contrast Cardiac and Skeletal Muscle

Compare and Contrast Cardiac and Skeletal Muscle Something that differentiates animals from other organisms is their ability to voluntarily carry out actions using their muscles. They do this by muscle cells changing length, which is known as contracting. There are three types of muscle, which are distinguished by their structures and functions. These are cardiac, skeletal and smooth muscle. Here I shall be comparing the structures of cardiac and skeletal muscle and looking at how their histological, structural and functional differences allow them to carry out their specific roles more effectively. Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart and causes contractions, in the heart called systole, which pump the blood out of the heart and around the body supplying the oxygen and other vital substances to cells. Skeletal muscle is attached to tendons, which in turn attach to bones. The contractions of skeletal muscles cause the tendons to pull on the bones, which results in movement of, for example, an arm. There is only one similarity between the structures of cardiac and skeletal muscles. Both their structures are striated (striped), formed by actin and myosin myofilaments. They are tightly organised into repeating patterns so that actin can slide over the myosin during contraction. Figure 1 shows one of those repeating units in cardiac and skeletal muscle, called a sarcomere. For contraction to occur in cardiac and skeletal muscle, the actin filaments slide over the myosin filaments in a process known as the sliding-filament theory. So in figure 1 the thin pink filaments would slide over the dark blue filaments (not true colours). Myosin heads are attached to the actin. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) induces the dissociation of the myosin head, the myosin head then attaches again to the actin and eventually inorganic phosphate (Pi ) is released changing the angle of the myosin head, causing the actin filaments to slide over the myosin filament.  [1]  This causes a decrease in length of the I band but the A band always stays the same length. One of the main differences between the two types of muscle is in the way that their contractions are brought about. If one wanted to raise their arm, their brain would produce an action potential via the somatic nervous system (SNS). The action potential will lead to a muscle action potential and the T-tubules will depolarize and open calcium ion (Ca2+) channels, leading to cross-bridge cycling, where the actin and myosin slide past each other and cause the skeletal muscle to contract, lifting the bone with it. So the muscle will not contract without the input of the nervous system. Cardiac muscle is also connected to the nervous system. But as contractions are involuntary, cardiac muscle is connected to the autonomic nervous system (ANS). However, unlike in skeletal muscle, the actual action potentials that stimulate muscle contraction are created by myogenic cells in the heart. Myogenic means that it is the cells themselves that create the electrical action potentials, without the need for any external input. The cells are located in the Sino Atrial Node (SAN), which itself is located by the right atrium; the cells in the SAN are known as the pacemaker. They produce a pacemaker potential which sets the frequency of action potentials and thus the intrinsic rhythm of the normal heart.  [2]  The ANS, connected to the SAN, only modulates the heart rate, with the sympathetic nervous system speeding up the heart rate ready for the fight or flight reaction and the parasympathetic nervous system slowing the heart rate down. It is important that the heart is controlled automatically so that we are not conscious of the heart beating, because it would be almost impossible and probably exhausting for us to have to consciously think about making every single heart beat, especially when we are asleep. Moreover, because the heart is myogenic, there are benefits for transplants because the heart muscle can continue beating while the heart is being taken to the new body. Skeletal muscle must be under voluntary control so that every action can be carried out consciously, such as picking up a cup. If it were automatic there would be no conscious control of when the muscles should contract and our limbs would not be under our control. Nevertheless in reflex reactions, the skeletal muscle does come under the control of the ANS. For example, if ones hand was to touch a hot object, the ANS would react following a reflex arc of stimulus, receptor, sensory neuron, relay neuron, motor neuron, effector, response; the arm would automatically move away from the heat source. Generally, compared to the beating of the heart, there is no such pattern in our voluntary skeletal muscle contractions thus an automatic myogenic rhythm of action potentials are not required in skeletal muscles. Looking at a fasciculus from both a cardiac and skeletal muscle shows that they are structured slightly differently. Figure 2.1 and Figure 2.2 (see below) show simplified versions of the structure of both muscles. Figure 2.1 shows an example of skeletal muscle. It is made of long thin cylindrical fibres, each being innervated by a single somatic alpha motoneuron. The axon enters the muscle and branches, connecting to single muscle fibres. In cardiac muscle the fibres are linked together by a type of intercalated disc called a gap junction. Also the fibres are held together by adherens junctions. These strengthen the overall structure of the cardiac muscle so the forceful contractions in the heart dont tear the fibres. The gap junctions are vital for the functioning of the heart. They allow the electrical signals produced from the SAN to pass between muscle cells so they all contract in a synchronised way and the atria followed by the ventricles undergo systole.  [3]  The heart has Purkinje fibres that conduct the action potential so that they go from the SAN in the right atrium all the way to the left ventricle. Damage to cardiac muscle fibres may cause unsynchronised contractions. This irregular and fast contraction of the heart is called fibrillation. If this occurs in somebody, without treatment they are likely to die. It can be treated by a large electric shock delivered across the chest by the use of a defibr illator. This aims to stop and then restart the APs from the SAN and thus for the heart to beat regularly again. Cardiac and skeletal muscle will both react to a single action potential by producing a single twitch response. When the frequency of signals increase, skeletal muscles show summation, where two APs, which occur very close together, will result in one stronger response rather than two normal responses. Eventually a tetanus can occur and instead of simply undergoing a series of single twitches for each action potential, the muscle remains in a contracted state for brief periods, which is far more efficient. This tetanus occurs because the refractory period is a lot shorter than the time it takes for a single cycle of contraction and relaxation. In cardiac muscle cells however, the duration of the action potential is a lot longer, due to slowly activating calcium channels and the T-tubules being relatively longer. Because another action potential cannot occur until the response of the previous action potential has been completed, cardiac muscle cannot undergo a tetanus. This is extremely important for cardiac muscle because time is needed for the heart to sufficiently fill up with blood before the next action potential arrives. A tetanus would prevent this happening and the heart would undergo systole and relaxation (diastole) at times when there is very little or no blood in the heart. Again, fibrillation is likely to occur. Due to the fact that cardiac muscle relaxes fully between contractions, it doesnt tire like skeletal muscle does. This is a benefit for cardiac muscle because if ones heart started to tire one would get angina and some areas of cardiac muscle may start to die. Due to the heart being constantly active, a lot more ATP is needed in cardiac muscle cells than in skeletal muscle cells, which only contract when required to. Therefore cardiac muscle has a larger number of mitochondria than skeletal muscle. Cardiac muscle undergoes constant oxidative phosphorylation to provide the ATP required for the actin to slide over myosin and thus for the muscle to contract. This means the cardiac muscle also requires its own supply of oxygen and respiratory substrates to respire aerobically. These are supplied via coronary arteries, which branch off from the ascending aorta. Having this supply and consequently producing a lot more ATP, is very effective for contractions. Skeletal muscle though, does not have as many mitochondria because it contracts relatively less frequently and does not need the constant supply of ATP. Relatively there is a huge difference in the length of a cardiac muscle fibre and a skeletal muscle fibre. Each cardiac fibre is up to 100 µm whereas each skeletal fibre is between a few mm to a 10cm  [4]. A muscle fibre is also known as a muscle cell. Most cells, including cardiac muscle fibres (cells), have one nucleus. Skeletal muscle fibres have many nuclei along the fibre (figure 2.1). This can be explained by looking again at the lengths of each type of fibre. Each skeletal muscle fibre is at least ten times the length of a cardiac muscle fibre. It would not be very effective for skeletal muscle to have just one nucleus to supply the whole length of the cell. The rough endoplasmic reticulum, which is positioned in the cell near the nucleus, has ribosomes on its surface where polypeptides are compiled. Therefore even if the nucleus was positioned in the middle of the cell, any polypeptides or proteins will be synthesised near there and would require ATP to transport it to where it is needed along the length of the cell. As a result, it is far more effective to have many nuclei scattered along the muscle fibre. Cardiac myocytes (muscle cells) are relatively a lot shorter, thus one nucleus is enough to provide for the whole fibre (see figure 2.2). Aerobic respiration is vital in cardiac muscle. It is the main source of ATP in cardiac muscle and is as a result of oxidative phosphorylation. The main respiratory substrates in cardiac muscle are fatty acids  [5]  , and also carbohydrates. Approximately 1 2% of the ATP in the heart originates from anaerobic respiration in basal metabolic conditions. This can go up to around 9% in hypoxic conditions, but in any more extreme hypoxic circumstances not enough oxidative phosphorylation occurs so theres not enough ATP produced for cardiac contractions, and the cardiac muscle will begin to die. Skeletal muscles have three sources of phosphate to make ATP as and when it is required: creatine phosphate, glycogen and cellular respiration. The creatine phosphate gives its phosphate to an ADP to leave ATP and creatine. There is about 10 times the amount of creatine phosphate than there is of ATP, so this is provides a good source of ATP. Skeletal muscle only contains about 1% glycogen. It can though undergo glycogenolysis to convert glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate. This goes on to yield just two molecules of ATP, so evidently this is a limited source. Cellular respiration is the main source of ATP during lengthy exercise and when converting lactic acid to glycogen.  [6]   There are many differences between cardiac and skeletal muscle. Both have striations but beyond that, they have special unique features that make their functions more effective. The heart is myogenic making it self-sufficient whereas skeletal muscle is controlled by the nervous system. It is also vital that the hearts cardiac muscle works without any problems, as even the slightest of problems in the heart can lead to death. Both types of muscle are important to not only humans but all animals. Cardiac muscle, as previously mentioned, is vital to our existence; without it we could not survive as it is needed to circulate oxygen and nutrients around the body. Skeletal muscle allows us to interact with our environment with ease and for humans this is most important as it lets us drive a car, use a computer or walk to university for example. For other animals it allows them to chase prey or run from a predator. And if the muscles werent as effective, there may be less ease when carrying out such activities. Literature cited Gillian Pocock, Christopher D. Richards (2006). Human Physiology The Basis of Medicine. Oxford Core texts. Pages 84 85, Page 87 figure 7.6 http://www.ucl.ac.uk/~sjjgsca/MuscleCardiac.html Josà © Marà ­n-Garcà ­a Michael J Goldenthal (2002) The Mitochondrial Organelle and the Heart, Rev Esp Cardiol, Volume 55, Issue 12, pp. 1293 1310, ISSN: 1579-2242 http://users.rcn.com/jkimball.ma.ultranet/BiologyPages/M/Muscles.html

Scarlet Letter Diary Entries Essay -- The Scarlet Letter Diary Hester

Scarlet Letter Diary Entries Entry 1 I have arrived at my new home. The boat trip was very rough, even to the extent of making me lose track of time. That unclean, floating mass of death was merciful enough to let me be. Too many children have suffered and died on the way to America. I miss Roger a little bit, and hope he comes soon. I'm very lonely and I don't know what I'll do to keep myself busy. Roger was nice enough to give me money to live off of until he comes to be with me. There are a lot of handsome men around here. A single woman could have a lot of fun, and never be by herself. Entry 2 Well, it's been a few weeks since I came ashore on this new land, but I think I'm getting used to the people and their customs. I have a house that's very comfortable and cozy. It's small, but just the right size for Roger and I. The church here is very nice. The minister is young and full of life, and kind of cute too. They welcomed me in with open arms, and I've been invited to attend every Sunday. They all make me feel so at home, I was immediately attached to the people here. I have sewn a new dress for myself for special occasions only. I've worn it to church once and got dozens of compliments on it. I've even got some offers from some of the 'better off' folk, to make dresses for them, but I declined. I'm fine just enjoying life right now. Everything is perfect, except Roger isn't here. It's funny; I don't miss him that much anymore. I keep wondering when he'll a...

The Debt Crisis of the Eighties and Nineties Essay -- Economy Economic

The Debt Crisis of the Eighties and Nineties The debt crisis of the 1980s and 1990s has been one of the largest economic disasters of the 20th Century. It has caused widespread poverty, famine and starvation across many of the third world countries it has touched. The Crisis did not go by unnoticed however. Since the mid 1990s world governments have awoken to the horrible reality that such debt causes with attempts to lighten the devastating affects with such programs as the Brady plan, HIPC and eventually HIPC 2. While these plans have had only limited success the question of weather the debt crisis can be solved in the long run is still to be answered. The debt crisis as it is now called did not occur in one single event; instead it developed as a slow moving â€Å"chronic syndrome†[1]. The primary crisis, which occurred in Mexico in 1982, was centred on middle-income nations[2], while the second strain occurred in poorer African nations, with the effects from it still being well and truly felt today[3]. For these countries the need for industrialisation meant the need for large-scale borrowing. Since many of the African nations were excluded from being aloud to borrow until the early 1960s, the need to borrow a lot, quickly, was a common trend throughout the developing nations[4]. The reasons for the colossal amounts of debt cannot be simply explained for they vary from country to country. Some nations had corrupt militaristic governments who cared more for themselves than for their people[5]. While others struggled with failed projects and damaging economic decisions[6]. By the early 70’s the debt had begun to accumulate. The impoverished and debt stricken countries began to shift commodities meant for the sustenance of the people to the export sector to try and make enough money to pay off their debts. Suddenly all the indebted countries were simultaneously selling their primary commodities on the world market. The flow of coffee, coca, copper, steel, ect, had the devastating effect of lowering the commodity prices causing the developing nations to make much less than they had previously. Countries now had to sell two or three times what the used too to make the same money[7]. Combined with the rising and falling of the dollar, and the rises of interest rates in the 80s, the third world debt was now even larger than ... ...continue in the long run many of HIPC goals will be achieved. Success of HIPC and the debt cancellation plans of the 90’s are indeed difficult to judge. If success were to be measured by how much has been paid out from the forecasted amount then HIPC could be viewed as a failure. However if success were judged on the increase of social service spending then yes HIPC would be seen as a successful initiative. The one clear success of the debt cancellation plans has been public awareness. Though the cancellation process is moving slowly and only achieving a fraction of its goals[18] the general public of the world has now awoken to the horrors that debt can lead to. With public support behind the debt cancellation process the debt crisis will eventually be overcome. --------------------------------------------------------------------- [1] La Trobe, Assignment Manual, p.130 [2] Ibid [3] Ibid, pp.130, 131 [4] Ibid, p.133 [5] Ibid, p.131 [6] Ibid [7] Ibid, p.137 [8] Ibid [9] lecture [10] Ibid, p.144, 145 [11] Ibid [12] Ibid [13] Ibid, p.149 [14] Ibid, p.152 [15] Ibid, p.156 [16] Ibid [17] Ibid [18] Ibid, pp. 150-153

Jonathan Swift Essay

Compare and contrast the ways in which the problem of homelessness and the solution to it are presented in the two texts: ‘A Modest Proposal’ by Jonathan Swift and ‘Stone Cold’ by Robert Swindells.  In this assignment I am going to compare the two texts, which talk about their anger of homelessness. Although the two texts are written 250 years apart where the problem of homelessness was first outlined by Jonathan Swift it is still a big problem today as Robert Swindells outlines in his text. The text written by Robert Swindells, ‘Stone Cold’, shows the cruelty of the DSS, who brush aside the homeless like Link because he hasn’t got a permanent address. This particular problem was outlined by the Robert Swindells, as they made no attempt to help the young homeless people in London. Link says that he may as well be speaking to one of the stone lions in Trafalgar Square, suggesting to the reader it was a complete waste of time. This is linked with ‘A Modest Proposal’, which was written by Jonathan Swift 250 years ago as it states about how uncaring the rich landlords of Ireland are. For example, Who, as they have already devoured most of the Parents, seem to have the best title to the children, which means the landlords have already eaten most of the parents and seem to have the best right to the children, which I feel means the landlords don’t really care about the poor. I also think this is a savage comment. Another problem outlined in the two texts is that of unemployment. In ‘Stone Cold’ Swindells shows the problem of unemployment when Link goes to find a job and is turned down because he doesn’t have a fixed address. So this means anybody without a fixed address cannot get a job. This problem leads to a whole string of problems like: no money, no accommodation, which leads to people begging on the streets to get as much money as they can. In ‘A Modest Proposal’ the problem of unemployment was around 250 years ago as well. How ever the problem 250 years ago was very different as it was mainly the women who were unemployed as they had 3-6 children each as there was no control over getting pregnant. This meant the women had to support the children whatever way she could this usually meant begging.  So in the two texts the problem of unemployment in the end the result seemed to be begging on the streets to survive.  So putting that together I can see that in 250 years when the problem was first outlined by Swift, it is still a major problem today, and there are still uncaring people towards them. In the next section of my assignment I am going to write about the language of the two texts.  If you compare the two texts, you can notice the way in which the two writers spell words and also the punctuation is very different.  If you look at the text for ‘A Modest Proposal’ words are spelt very differently from today, as they did not have a dictionary the writer spelt words, as he wanted to. For example the way Jonathan Swift spelt publick is not the way we would write today. We would spell it public.  The spelling in ‘Stone Cold’ is, however, standardized as we now get our words from a dictionary, so to us it makes perfect sense. Also in ‘Stone Cold’ there is great use of 20th century slang words like, Doggie bag, which is slang for someone’s name I would think. The way the two writers use punctuation is very different.  In ‘A Modest Proposal’ the punctuation is very different to how we use punctuation now. The writer seems to put commas wherever he feels like and also puts capital letters in the middle of a sentence. For example, when they see the Streets, the Roads, and Cabbin-Doors, crowded with beggars of the female Sex. You can see that there is a lot of use of commas where some of them should be full stops. Also if you look towards the end of the sentence you can see that Sex is spelt with a capital at the end of a sentence.  In contrast if you look at the text for ‘Stone Cold’ the writers use of punctuation is very different to that of Jonathan Swift’s ‘A Modest Proposal’, as in ‘Stone Cold’ the writer’s punctuation is standardized into 20th century language.

Atm Card Project

The completion of every task needs the guidance support & cooperation of many people. This is the opportunity to thank all those who had directly or indirectly helped me in completing this work. First and foremost I am grateful to my project guide Mr. Rahul Deo whose kind guidance, help & motivation helped me to complete this project. I express my sincere gratitude to Dr. Rajendra Kumar Jain,H. O. D(M. B. A Department ) and all the faculty members of SVIM for their kind support. I am grateful to Director Ret. Major General Dr. J. R.Bhatti of Shri Vaishnav Institute Of Management for providing proper facilities in the college. I would also like to thank all the respondents and wholesaler/retailer/distributor for giving me their precious time and relevant information ,without which this Project would have been a different story. Last but not the least I am grateful to my parent, family & friends who have supported and encouraged me during my work. PRAVIN PAHADIYA MBA IV SEM(PT) SVIM,IN DORE.ATM CARD : A VITAL FACILITY & ITS IMPACT ON ECONOMY WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO ICICI & IDBI INTRODUCTION: ATM the fastest and convenient way to access your account anytime anyway whether you are in your home town or around the world. It is convenient and safe to carry and place of lacks of rupees while traveling or anywhere ATM’s now having a wide impact on economy too. HISTORY OF ICICI & IDBI: INDUSTRIAL CREDIT & INVESTMENT CORP. OF INDIA LTD. (ICICI). It was set-up as a Development Finance Institute in 1955 under the Indian Companies Act 1913 with the support of Govt. f India and active involvement of the World Bank. INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT BANK OF INDIA (IDBI). It was established in July 1964. The bank is intended to serve reservoir from which the existing financial institutions can draw. It seeks to cover the gaps left by the numerous state institutions working in the field of Industrial Finance. OBJECTIVE OF PROJECT: 1. To find its impact on economy. 2. Satisfaction o f ATM users. STUDY AREA: ICICI & IDBI, Indore METHODOLOGY: 1. Sampling: Sampling technique: Random Sampling. SOURCE OF DATA: ) Primary Data 2) Secondary Data LIMITATIONS: ? Sample restricted to Indore City Only. ? Biasness of respondents. ? The entire study and analysis are based on the responses obtain from structured questionnaire. ATM – A VITAL FACITLITY & ITS ITS IMPACT ON ECONOMY INTRODUCTION ATM (AUTOMATIC TELLER MACHINE) is the easiest & the fastest way to access your account any time, any where through any of the ATM’s across the country even out of country. Now ,the money is accessible by any person 24 hours a day,7 days a week & 365 days a year.It is also known as â€Å"ANY TIME MONEY†, it means that banks never closed. All of us carry some form of â€Å"Plastic Money† with us whether it is Debit card, ATM card, Smart card or Credit card. The International Debit Card allows you to purchase goods at Merchant Establishments and also gives you the freedom to withdraw cash from ATMs in India and abroad. ATM Card gives you the freedom of making purchases without the hassles of paying in cash. No need to carry cash, no paying bills at the end of the month†¦your purchases will be debited to your account instantly.We can withdraw from 15,000 to 2,00,000 rupees in a day from different bank’s ATM machine & deposit up to 30 notes at one time even we can also deposit cheques through the ATM. Operate multiple account with a single ATM card of the bank. INTRODUCTION INDUSTRIAL CREDIT & INVESTMENT COPERATION OF INDIA (ICICI) bank is India's second-largest bank with total assets of about Rs. 106,812 crore and a network of about 450 branches and offices and about 1700 ATMs. ICICI was set up as a Developed Financial Institution in 1955, under the Indian Company Act,1913 with the support of the Government Of India ; active involvement of the World Bank.ICICI Bank offers a wide range of banking products and financial services to c orporate and retail customers through a variety of delivery channels and through its specialised subsidiaries and affiliates in the areas of investment banking, life and non-life insurance, venture capital, asset management and information technology. ICICI Bank's equity shares are listed in India on stock exchanges at Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Vadodara, the Stock Exchange, Mumbai and the National Stock Exchange of India Limited and its American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) are listed on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE).ICICI Bank was originally promoted in 1994 by ICICI Limited, an Indian financial the initiative of the World Bank, the Government of India and representatives of Indian industry. The principal objective was to create a development financial institution for providing medium-term and long-term project financing to Indian businesses. In the 1990s, ICICI transformed its business from a development financial institution offering only project finance to a diversified fin ancial services group offering a wide variety of products and services, both directly and through a number of subsidiaries and affiliates like ICICI Bank.In 1999, ICICI become the first Indian company and the first bank or financial institution from non-Japan Asia to be listed on the NYSE. After consideration of various corporate structuring alternatives in the context of the emerging competitive scenario in the Indian banking industry, and the move towards universal banking, the managements of ICICI and ICICI Bank formed the view that the merger of ICICI with ICICI Bank would be the optimal strategic alternative for both entities, and would create the optimal legal structure for the ICICI group's universal banking strategy.The merger would enhance value for ICICI shareholders through the merged entity's access to low-cost deposits, greater opportunities for earning fee-based income and the ability to participate in the payments system and provide transaction-banking services.The me rger would enhance value for ICICI Bank shareholders through a large capital base and scale of operations, seamless access to ICICI's strong corporate relationships built up over five decades, entry into new business segments, higher market share in various business segments, particularly fee-based services, and access to the vast talent pool of ICICI and its subsidiaries. In October 2001, the Boards of Directors of ICICI and ICICI Bank approved the merger of ICICI and two of its wholly-owned retail finance subsidiaries, ICICI Personal Financial Services Limited and ICICI Capital Services Limited, with ICICI Bank.The merger was approved by shareholders of ICICI and ICICI Bank in January 2002, by the High Court of Gujarat at Ahmedabad in March 2002, and by the High Court of Judicature at Mumbai and the Reserve Bank of India in April 2002. Consequent to the merger, the ICICI group's financing and banking operations, both wholesale and retail, have been integrated in a single entity. A nywhere Banking ICICI Bank is the second largest bank in the country, serves a customer base of more than 5 million customer accounts through a multi-channel access network.This includes more than 400 branches and extension counters, over 1000 ATMs, Call Centre and Internet Banking. Thus, one can access the various services ICICI Bank has to offer at anytime, anywhere and from anyplace. Do’S & Do not 1. Sign on the card immediately on receipt. Unsigned cards are invitations for misuse. 2. Keep the card in a prominent place in wallet / vault. This will help you to notice if any of your cards is missing. 3. Ensure that the card you got back after the transaction is yours before putting in the wallet. 4.Keep all card number, expiry date and contact number of the issuing bank at a secure place for ready reference. It has to be kept in a different place than where you normally keep cards. 5. Inform issuing bank immediately if you lose the card or it is loss/stolen from you. 6. Mem orize PIN and destroy the mailer PIN is an important validation of your identity. The use of PIN along with card is considered as your authentic signature. 7. Inform change of address to card issuing bank immediately. Inform postal authorities also about the forwarding address. 8.Keep all charge slips till you get statement from bank. Check all charge slips against the statement. If there is a mismatch immediately contact the issuing bank. 9. If going abroad, make note of the card company's (Visa/ MasterCard/ Amex) emergency number abroad. 10. Do not give your debit card number over the phone or on the Internet. 11. When using your card in a merchant establishment, only your signature is needed. Never disclose any other personal details about yourself, be it your address or phone number. 12. Never sign an incomplete sales slip.Make sure it is totaled. Basic Features ICICI Bank and HPCL bring you the â€Å"Fuel† Debit Card. A debit card designed with just our convenience in mi nd. Just hand it over at any HPCL pumps and SAVE on our fuel purchases. In fact you can use the card for all your shopping, dining and traveling needs, so we spend with total control. Combining the acceptability of a credit card and the prudence of an ATM Card, the ICICI Bank Ncash Debit card is a most convenient accessory for us. No more fear of overspending. No more searching for the nearest ATM. Only more comfort and convenience!With the ICICI Bank Ncash Debit Card you can shop using VISA Electron's on-line debit program, and debit your ICICI Bank account directly when transacting at any VISA accredited member establishment or ATM across the world! Accepted at over 40,000 merchant establishments, more than 1,200 ICICI Bank ATM's and more than 2,500 VISA ATMs all over India. International Card, offering deposit access at over 11 million merchant establishments VISA . Your ICICI Bank HPCL Debit Card comes packed with the following features: 1. Direct On-line debit to your ICICI Ban k account. 2.Refund of surcharge for fuel purchases at HPCL pumps. 3. Accepted at over 40,000 shops, more than 1,200 ICICI Bank ATM's & 2,500 VISA ATMs all over India. 4. International card offering deposit access at over 11 million shops and & VISA ATM's all over the world. 5. 24 Hour Customer Care Center. 6. Speed-O-Miles Rewards Programme. 7. Itemized billing on your bank statement. 8. Lost card insurance. Fee ; Charges: No transactions charges at ICICI Bank ATMs. Transactions charges at Non ICICI Bank ATMs : Rs. 50/- for cash withdrawal ; Rs. 25/- for balance enquiry. Lost Card Insurance:In case our card is lost or stolen, we just need to call our 24 Hour Customer Care Centre . A new card will be issued on request and sent to you within 1 week of reporting this loss. We are protected from any financial liability arising from any purchase transactions done on our card, from the time you report the loss. INTRODUCTION INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT BANK OF INDIA was established in July 196 4, to serve as a reservoir from which the existing Financial Institutions can draw. It seeks to cover the gap left by the numerous state institutions working in the field of industrial finance.The bank is expected to combine commercial, promotional ; re-financing activities. It took place after RBI issued guidelines for entry of new private sector banks in January 93. Subsequently, IDBI as promoters sought permission to establish a commercial bank and retained KPMG a management consultant of international repute to prepare the groundwork for establishing a commercial Bank. The Reserve Bank of India conveyed it's in principle approval to establish IDBI bank on February 11th, 1994. Thereafter the Bank was incorporated at Gwalior under Companies Act on 15th of September 1994 (Registration No. 0-08624 of 1994) with its Registered Office at Indore. The Certificate for Commencement of Business was received on 2nd of December 1994. The Future IDBI bank looks confidently into the future to face and thrive in the intense competitive environment that is emerging. The bank has now gained experience and has in place the strategies required for gaining a leadership position. With cutting edge relevant technology, aggressive marketing, innovation, tight control over costs and with its motivated workforce, the bank is all set to emerge as a model global corporate citizen n the days ahead. IDBI, the tenth largest development bank in the world has promoted world class institutions in India. A few of such institutions built by IDBI are The National Stock Exchange (NSE), The National Securities Depository Services Ltd. (NSDL), Stock Holding Corporation of India (SHCIL) etc. IDBI is a strategic investor in a plethora of institutions which have revolutionized the Indian Financial Markets. IDBI promoted IDBI bank to mark the formal foray of the IDBI Group into commercial Banking. This initiative has blossomed into a major success story.IDBI bank, which began with an equity capital base of Rs. 1000 million (Rs. 800 million contributed by IDBI and Rs. 200 million by SIDBI), commenced its first branch at Indore in November 1995. Thereafter in less than seven years the bank has attained a front ranking position in the Indian Banking Industry. IDBI bank successfully completed its public issue in February 99 which led to its paid-up capital expanding to Rs. 1400 million. The promoters holding consequent to this public issue stood reduced to 71% with IDBI holding 57% and SIDBI 14% of the paid up capital of IDBI Bank.This is in line with the requirement of RBI which stipulates that eventually the promoters holding should be brought down to 40%. IDBI ATM’s IDBI bank, which in recent times has rapidly expanded its ATM network to 258 ATMs across 68 cities, has always been at the forefront of using the latest technology to introduce new services for its customers. IDBI bank was the first Bank to implement the latest and most flexible ATM switch technology in India called IST from Oasis Technologies. It is also the only Bank in India where its entire ATM network is on the latest NDC based operating system from NCR Corporation.IDBI bank launches Easy Fill, the First Online Instant Mobile Refill ATM Service in India, IDBI also bank opens its 97th Banking office in Dum Dum, Kolkata. IDBI bank launches Easy Fill, the First Online Instant Mobile Refill ATM Service in India, IDBI bank launches ATM Next, the next generation ATM service:- IDBI bank, one of the youngest and fastest growing private sector banks in the country, launched the futuristic next generation ATM service called ATM Next, at a well-attended press conference here in Mumbai today. The innovative new service allows the ATM to download any information from a central web server.With the help of this new technology, IDBI bank’s customers can now check the latest cricket scores live on the ATM, as well as read the latest news headlines. The ATMs also provide online information on the latest movies running with a complete list of theatre and show timings as well as daily horoscopes, a list of emergency services telephone numbers and on the lighter side, fortune cookies. The service, which was launched initially in Mumbai, also enables the ATMs to provide audio instructions to customers, as well as comprehensive information on its products and services.The Bank proposes to extend this facility to other cities shortly, as part of a phased roll out. Speaking at the press conference, Ajay Bimbhet, Country Head – Retail Banking, IDBI bank said â€Å"We have always believed in using technology to add value to the services we provide to our customers. We believe that technology must constantly redefine service and this exciting new service, will make the ATM experience far more exciting and enriching for our customers†. The Bank has tied up with Rediff. om as its exclusive content provider for this service, says Shameek Bhargava, Head ATMs, Cards and Merchant Acquiring â€Å"We have successfully exploited the technology at our disposal to create a truly superior customer experience. This is the first time that such a service has been launched in India. The application was show cased at a recent Banking conference at Singapore, where it was a huge success. Its informative, its different, its futuristic and its fun. † IDBI bank offers following services: 1. Fabulous Discounts at various Merchant Outlets . 2. Loyalty Points with Great Rewards . . Enhanced access to over 8. 5lakh ATMs and 10 million establishments worldwide. 4. Promotional programmes with exciting prizes. 5. Zero lost card liability insurance. Eligibility 1. Customer Over 18 years of age . 2. Savings Account holders . 3. Current Account holders . 4. Corporate Payroll Account holders . Security In a borderless world spinning on the axis of the Internet, Internet Banking assumes a special and sophisticated significance. Mindful that the ultimate access could be through the Internet, we set out to sew together a globally benchmarked Internet initiative.With Internet Banking, your bank travels with you around the world. You have on-line, real-time access, bank call it 24. 7. 365 (HH/WW/DD) banking. Admittedly, such a service requires security of the highest nature and complete privacy protection. To that end, bank provide a completely secure environment, using 128-bit encryption Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), digitally certified by Verisign. 128-bit SSL. This guarantees world-class security for Internet and e-commerce. Customize Features 1. Change of login and transaction passwords . 2. Creation of Nicknames for Accounts . 3. Date and Amount format choices . Online Payment ServicesThe Internet Banking facility of IDBI Bank, i-netbanking offers online payment facility linked with merchant websites/e-shops serving as a payment gateway. The bank offers this facility to any agency requiring online payment services such as Online Shopping Malls, On line Share Trading Agency, an AMC selling Online Mutual Funds or registering/subscribing for internet connection with ISP. This service is available to IDBI bank account holders (savings, current, fixed deposit accounts). It will soon be available to Demat account holders also. Currently, internet banking is available to all first account holders (except minors).It is also available to proprietors of firms in their Current Account for Proprietorship firms. In all cases applicant should have authority to operate account with full permission. All the joint account holders must sign application for all accounts wherever applicant is first account holder. Transfer funds to your near and dear ones at the click of a mouse. Eye – popping features: The Electronic fund transfers could take place to your own bank accounts of your choice instantly the bank account of any other person within any of the IDBI bank's branches instantly.The bank account of any other person in over 8000 branc hes of any bank within the 14 cities -Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta, Chennai, Bangalore, Ahmedabad, Kanpur, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Nagpur, Chandigarh, Patna, Bhubaneswar, Thiruvananthapuram. The user shall not use or attempt to use i-net banking for funds transfer – as and when the facility is made available – without sufficient funds in the relative i-net banking -account or without a pre-existing arrangement with the bank for the grant of an overdraft. Internet Banking Services (i-net banking) Bank' refers to IDBI bank limited, a banking company incorporated in India under the companies act 1956 and having its registered office at chaturvedi mansion, 2nd floor, 26/4, old palasia, A. B. Road, indore 452 001. The term includes the successors and assigns of the IDBI bank limited. I-net banking is the trade name of the bank's internet banking service which provides access through the internet to account information, account transaction, other products and services as advised by th e bank from time to time to the bank's customers. I-net banking serviceThe bank shall endeavor to provide to the user through i-net banking, services such as enquiry about the balance in his i-net banking account(s), details about transactions, statement of account, request for issue of cheque-books, request for transfer of funds between accounts of the same user, from user's account to another person's account, bill payment and such other facilities as the bank may decide to provide from time to time. These facilities shall be offered in a phased manner at the discretion of the bank. The bank may also make additions/ deletions to the services offered through i-net banking at its sole discretion.The availability/ non-availability of a particular service shall be advised through email, web page of the bank or written communication. The bank shall take reasonable care to, ensure the security of and prevent unauthorized access to the i-net banking service using technology reasonably av ailable to the bank. The user shall not use or permit to use i-net banking or any related service for any illegal or improper purposes. Minimum balance and charges The user shall maintain, at all times, such minimum balance in i-net banking account(s), as the bank may stipulate from time to time.The bank may, at its discretion, levy penal charges and/or service charges for non-maintenance of the minimum balance. In addition to the minimum balance stipulation the bank may levy service charges for use of i-net banking at its discretion. The user authorizes the bank to recover all charges related to i-net banking as determined by the bank from time to time by debiting one of user's i-net banking accounts. Accuracy of information The user is responsible for the correctness of information supplied to the bank through the use of i-net banking or through any other means such as electronic mail or written communication.The bank accepts no liability for the consequences arising out of errone ous information supplied by the user. If the user suspects that there is an error in the information supplied to the bank by him, he shall advise the bank as soon as possible. The bank will endeavor to correct the error wherever possible. Termination of i-net banking service The user may request for termination of the i-net banking facility any time by giving a written notice of at least 15 days to the bank. The user will remain responsible for any transactions made on his i-net banking account(s) through i-net banking prior to the time.Technology and Tech Initiatives Keeping in line with its policy of leveraging technology to drive its business, IDBI bank deployed Finacle, the e-age banking solution from Infosys to consolidate its position, meet challenges and quickly seize new business opportunities. Entire Finacle rollout was remarkable considering the fact that it was implemented across all branches in a record time frame of 5 months. Finacle will provide the critical technology platform to propel the bank's new thrust and direction.Achievement of these significant milestones is consistent with IDBI bank's continued focus to create customer and shareholder value through deployment of superior technology. Investments in technology is part of the plan to put in place building blocks for creating the right organizational infrastructure which will help IDBI bank in consistently delivering superior products, convenient access channels and efficient service to our retail and corporate customers. Of the total investments of over Rs. 75 crs, large investment has been made in back-end technology to strengthen processes, systems and control.This, in the long run, propelled by a top quality management team will clearly set IDBI bank apart from its competitors. Stronger Capital Adequacy Capital Adequacy ratio of IDBI bank is well above the RBI norm of 9% and as on 30th June 2001 stood at 12. 01%. IDBI bank has adopted Governance standards based on best practices preva lent internationally. It has a structure of governance which meets with the requirements prescribed by the Kumarmangalam Birla panel and fully meets the recommendations by internationally acclaimed and recognized norms of governance addressed by the Cadbury, Greenbury and Meryn King committees.Employee Contribution IDBI bank has more than 1000 talented and highly motivated employees as on date. The average age of the employee at IDBI bank is 31 yrs. 85% of the employees are MBAs/CAs/ Professionally Qualified Bankers. The bank has rolled out broad based grant of stock options covering 75% of the employees to align their interests with those of its shareholders. Benefits of ATM cards 1. Transfer funds from any place to any place. 2. Same day clearance of cheques ; money deposited by you. 3. Also provide Cheque Books for transaction. 4. Provide Mini-Statement after every transaction. 5.Account Statement by E-Mail. 6. Free Demand-Drafts ; Pay-Orders. 7. Investment ; Tax advisory service s. Transaction at all ATM’s across the country:- 1. Withdrawal ; transfer of funds . 2. Request for a cheque book. 3. Deposit cash ; cheques. 4. Receive mini-statement. OBJECTIVES The main objective of this project is to show the need ; utility of ATM cards, different services provided by banks ; its impact on economy. Some of the others objectives are :- 1. Satisfaction of ATM user. 2. Utility of ATM cards. 3. Problem related to ATM cards. 4. Comparative study of banks ; services provided by them. 5.To collect different suggestion provided by people. SIGNIFICANCE OF THE RESEARCH We are performing every action for the welfare of mankind to make them more productive ; more innovative. Each ; every action in this world is performed for betterment. Significance of this research work is 1. It informs about the problem related to ATM user. 2. It provides many suggestions for the betterment of ATM services. 3. It informs about the satisfactory level of consumers. 4. This research a lso inform people about the services ; facilities provided by their ATM cards. 5. It shows the real purpose for using ATM.RESEARCH METHODOLOGY Research has adoptive research design to obtain accurate information of the situation, which existed . The research aim was to find out what are the problems by the ATM users, facility ; services. It is descriptive because it obtains the complete ; accurate description of a situation, which has the precision of a problem. It has the formal design of research ; it provides specific method for selection source of information ; also connection data from other sources. It has also a statistical study because it involves a few factors in many factors in many cases.The study basically emphasizes on the fact-finding that whether the ATM users are satisfied by the services ; facilities provided to them by banks or not. DATA COLLECTION METHOD The data collection is fully depends on Primary Data, Secondary Data ; Internet Information. 1. Primary Data:- It is conversion of original information for some specific purpose. 2. Secondary Data:- It contain all that information which is available by different sources ? Internal Data :- Data provided by banks. ? External Data :- Data collected from outside of banks. All other data is collected through Internet i. . by their Web-sites ; questionnaires. The purpose of questionnaires is to obtained qualitative information for accuracy of project. DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION Q. 1: Are you using ATM? Q. 2 : Which bank’s ATM you are using? Q. 3 Are you aware about all facilities provided by your ATM? Q. 4 – Do you face any problem in using ATM? Q. 5 If yes, please tick:- CONCLUSION The main thing that is concluded that ATM (AUTOMATIC TELLER MACHINE) is the fastest, easiest ; safest way to access your account. ATM Cards gives us freedom to purchases without the hassles of payment.By ATM card we are free from carrying cash with us. 1. People are using ATM card for ANY TIME MONE Y. 2. Maximum people are satisfied by services ; facilities provided by their banks. 3. Many people are aware about ATM cards ; their utilities. 4. People are using ATM cards for different purposes. 5. Some people are having problems related to operational, networking, less safety, less number of outlets, etc. 6. People also want zero balance ; no transaction limit. 7. People want more facilities ; services. RECOMMENDATIONS 1. There should be no transaction limit. . Clearance of money/cheque transaction time should be minimized. 3. Banks should increase ATM outlets.4. Minimum average balance should be reduced. 5. No charges for transaction with other ATM machines. 6. Interest should be given on money deposited above average balance limits. 7. More facilities ; services should be provided for customers. LIMITATIONS 1. The main limitation related to this project is the limited area i. e. INDORE city because it is such a broad topic of research ; we are not able to represent exact data on the basis of a single city only. . Difficulty related to approach different types of people with different mentality, nature ; habit. 3. Limitation related to time ; resource available. 4. The entire study is based on the response provided by the sample population ; analyses on the basis of questionnaires. 5. Limitation related to biased response. 6. Limited information given by banks due to security reasons.

Nebosh Igc Questions and Answers 1998-2005

THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Define the term `ergonomics'. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the possible effects on health that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of visual display unit (VDU) workstations. (4)| |(c)|Outline the main factors to be considered in an ergonomic assessment of a workstation to be used by a VDU operator. |(14)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Provide sketches to show clearly the nature of the following mechanical hazards f rom moving parts of machinery: || |(i)|entanglement|(2)| |(ii)|crushing|(2)| |(iii)|drawing-in|(2)| |(iv)|shear. |(2)| |||| |(a)|Outline the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the inspection and maintenance requirements for fire extinguishers in the workplace. |(4)| |||| 4||Explain the meaning of the following terms in relation to noise control|| |(i)|silencing|(2)| |(ii)|absorption|(2)| |(iii)|damping|(2)| |(iv)|isolation. |(2)| |||| 5||Outline a procedure for the safe lifting of a load by the use of a crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(8)| |||| |(a)|Define the term `target organ' within the context of occupational health. |(2)| |(b)|Outline the personal hygiene practices that should be followed to reduce the risk of ingestion of a hazardous substance. |(6)| |||| 7||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of special footwear explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| 8||List the items that should be included on an inspection checklist designed to ensure the safety of portable electrical appliances. |(8)| |||| |||| 9||Outline the main precautions to be taken when carrying out excavation work. (8)| |||| 10|(a)|State TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. |(2)| |(b)|Identify where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. |(6)| |||| 11||List the ways in which a fork lift truck may become unstable whilst in operation. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A1 – Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question aimed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge in relation to ergonomics. Socratic Seminar QuestionsMany candidates, for part (a), were able to provide adequate definitions of ergonomics, which is generally accepted as being the study of the interaction between workers and their work, and is concerned with the design of the workplace, work equipment and work methods with the needs and limitations of the human operator in mind. Definitions such as `man-machine interface', which still commonly appear in candidates' answers, are considered to be too narrowly focused. Ergonomics is concerned with far more than simply the use of machinery.Part (b) required candidates to demonstrate an understanding of the possible health effects that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of VDU workstations. A number of candidates simply listed conditions such as work-related upper limb disorders and eye strain, which was insufficient to gain high marks. The question required candidates to provide an outline of such conditions in order to demonstrate a proper understanding of the effects. An adequate outline would typically include detail of symptoms and the circumstances that would make the effects more likely.The final part of the question was answered reasonably well by most candidates. Stronger candidates were able to give well structured answers that considered the equipment, the environment, the task and the individual, and their inter-relationships. Some candidates went beyond the scope of the question and paraphrased the requirements of the Health and Safety (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992, such as the requirement for eyesight tests. In fact, most of the factors relevant to an ergonomic assessment are contained in a schedule to these Regulations.In addition, some answers included non-ergonomic issues such as fire safety and electricity. Once again, candidates are reminded to read the question thoroughly and to take note of key words and phrases. Section 2 Question 2 An understanding of mechanical hazards associated with moving par ts of machinery is a key part of the Certificate syllabus and this question was designed to test candidates' understanding of the categorisation of mechanical hazards given in Part 1 of BS EN 292:1991, `Safety of machinery – basic concepts, general principles for design' (and in the former British Standard, BS 5304:1988, `Safeguarding of machinery').Examiners were not looking for works of art; they did, however, require something that clearly represented parts of machinery and which demonstrated the particular hazard being referred to. Arrows to show the direction of movement helped enormously in this task. Some sketches were so poor that it was impossible to tell whether a hazard existed at all whereas others were extremely well presented and graphic, occasionally verging on the macabre.A considerable number of candidates showed confusion between the different types of hazard; in particular, entanglement and drawing-in hazards were often interchanged, and `shearing' seemed u nfamiliar to many. Examiners were quite concerned that on the whole candidates did not take advantage of what should have been easily obtainable marks from this question. Question 3 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. For part (a), nearly all candidates were able to offer an outline of the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers.Typical factors mentioned by candidates included accessibility, visibility, proximity to exits and escape routes, travel distances, and the means of supporting the equipment off the ground and free from obstruction. Only a few candidates, however, identified the need to protect extinguishers from the weather and other sources of damage. A little more difficulty was found with part (b), which required candidates to outline procedures to ensure that fire extinguishers remain operational.There were, however, some very good answers that clearly differentiated between the purposes of an inspection and those of maintenance. Inspection of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (eg monthly) visual checks to ensure that extinguishers are in place, have not been discharged and bear no obvious damage. Maintenance, on the other hand, is something rather more extensive and usually involves annual tests by a competent person according to the manufacturer's instructions in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher, with the removal and replacement of equipment found to be faulty.Question 4 This question sought to assess candidates' knowledge of basic noise control terms and principles. Unfortunately, many candidates either confused the terms, particularly damping and absorption, or were unable to demonstrate a clear understanding of the terms in relation to noise control. The latter group of candidates sometimes resorted to giving other information on noise that had not been asked for, such as the requirements of the Noise at Work Regulations 1989, and for which marks were n ot therefore available.The Examiners were looking for answers which explained that: silencing refers to the suppression of noise generated by the flow of air, gas or steam in ducts and pipes, or when exhausted to the atmosphere, and is achieved by the inclusion of either absorptive material or baffles; absorption is used to reduce the amount of reflected noise by using materials such as foam or mineral wool; damping is used primarily to reduce the amount of noise radiating from large panels and is achieved by increasing the stiffness of the panels; and isolation refers to the physical separation of people from the noise source (eg acoustic booths or havens), or to the reduction in structure-borne noise by vibration isolation (eg flexible pipes or anti-vibration machine mounts). Some good answers included simple sketches and examples to help to demonstrate a complete understanding of this area. Question 5 This was a question where candidates could earn high marks by imagining a lifti ng operation and then applying appropriate controls from first principles. It was not necessary, therefore, to have a detailed knowledge of cranes or lifting tackle. Some candidates wasted valuable time by going into detail on the suitability of the crane itself, even though the question was carefully worded so as to eliminate this aspect.A procedure for a lifting operation needs to take into account such issues as: the suitability of the lifting tackle (safe working load, free from defect, etc); the competence of the persons involved (driver, slinger, signaller); ensuring the load is lifted vertically, and that it is secure, balanced and controlled during the lift by the attachment of tag lines where necessary; ensuring proper communication; keeping the area clear of other persons; and performing each part of the operation (lifting, slewing/moving and lowering) at a rate that maintains proper control. Question 6 Most candidates, for part (a), were able to convey the idea that the h armful effects of a toxic substance are normally confined to particular organs within the human body, such as the lungs, liver, skin or kidneys. Hence, a `target organ' is the part of the body that sustains an adverse effect when it is exposed to, or is contaminated by, a particular harmful substance or agent. Part (b) looked at the risk of ingestion and the role played by personal hygiene in reducing the risk.Again, candidates are reminded of the need to read the question carefully since many appeared to miss the words `personal hygiene' and provided answers that took in the entire COSHH hierarchy. Good answers to part (b) provided detail of personal hygiene practices such as regular hand washing, the restriction of smoking and eating in the workplace, the use of suitable personal protective equipment (eg gloves), and the need for removing and cleaning contaminated clothing. Question 7 The importance of foot protection is illustrated by the fact that around 21,000 foot and ankle in juries were reported to the enforcing authorities in 1996/97. This question aimed to test candidates' awareness and understanding of the need for foot protection in many occupational settings.It was pleasing to note that a high proportion of candidates were able to provide excellent answers to this question, identifying good examples of the types of hazard and the appropriate footwear requirements. The most common included: falling objects (steel toe-caps), sharp objects (steel in-soles), flammable atmospheres (anti-static footwear), spread of contamination (washable boots), molten metal (heat resistant boots and gaiters), electricity (rubber soles), wet environments (impermeable wellingtons), slippery surfaces (non-slip soles), and cold environments (thermally insulated footwear). Question 8 The Examiners were pleased with the overall response to this question.Most candidates were able to offer fairly comprehensive lists of inspection items that included: equipment appropriate for the task and environment; equipment tested; equipment, plugs, connectors and cables free from damage; correct wiring and sound connections; fuses and other means of preventing excess current in place and of correct rating; accessible and appropriate means of isolation; and system not overloaded. Question 9 The dangers of excavation work include collapse of sides, falls of persons, materials or vehicles into the excavation, contact with buried services, build-up of fumes, ingress of water and contact with mechanical plant. Candidates should have been able to outline a range of precautions designed to protect against such dangers.Precautions include: detection of services (eg from plans, use of cable/pipe detectors, etc); support of sides; storage of materials and spoil away from edge; means of preventing vehicles falling into excavation (eg stop blocks); guard-rails and barriers; means of preventing collapse of adjacent structures; safe means of access/egress; testing for, and ventil ation of, noxious fumes; means of pumping out water; procedures for working with mechanical plant; and general issues such as inspection, training and supervision. Candidates who were able to provide detail of such precautions, often by means of examples, performed particularly well on this question. Question 10 Most candidates were able to provide two respiratory diseases for part (a), asbestosis and lung cancer being the most popular.In similar vein, most candidates, for part (b), were able to identify several areas where asbestos could be encountered in a building during renovation. These included pipe lagging, wall and roof panels, ceiling tiles, textured coatings such as fire resistant encapsulation of metal girders, insulation materials, and in gaskets and other seals. Although not affecting the marks, the Examiners were a little surprised by the few answers that referred to mesothelioma in part (a), despite this particular type of cancer being predominantly associated with as bestos exposure. Question 11 Most candidates coped reasonably well with this question, with marks being relatively easy to obtain when a structured approach, which considered the load, the environment and the vehicle itself, was adopted.Typical issues mentioned were: insecure, excessive or uneven loading; incorrect tilt and/or elevation of forks when travelling; uneven or unconsolidated ground; slopes (and incorrect procedures to deal with them); obstructions (overhead and low level); cornering at excessive speeds; sudden braking; poor condition of tyres; and mechanical failure. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A2: THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it.The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|Out line the duties placed on employers under the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992. |(4)| |(b)|Describe the FOUR factors that should be considered when making an assessment of manual handling operations. |(16)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||Outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with a workplace emergency. |(8)| |||| 3|(a)|Define the term `negligence'|(2)| (b)|Outline the THREE standard conditions that must be met for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence against an employer. |(6)| |||| 4||Outline the key points that should be covered in a training session for employees on the reporting of accidents/incidents. |(8)| |||| 5||List the main requirements of the Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1992. |(8)| |||| 6||With reference to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996:|| |(i)|explain the difference between `consulting' and `informing'|(2)| |(ii)|outline the health and safety matters on which employers must consult their employees. |(6)| |||| ||Outline TWO reactive measures and TWO proactive measures that can be used in monitoring an organisation's health and safety performance. |(8)| |||| 8||Outline the reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work. |(8)| |||| |||| 9|(a)|Explain the meaning of the terms: (i) ‘occupational exposure standard’ (OES) (ii) ‘maximum exposure limit’ (MEL). |(2)(2)| |(b)|Outline FOUR actions management could take when an MEL has been exceeded. |(4)| |||| 10|(a)|Explain the meaning of the term ‘safe system of work’. |(2)| |(b)|Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing authority when a safe system of work has not been implemented. |(6)| |||| 1||Outline the factors to consider when making an assessment of first-aid provision in a workplace. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1998 Paper A2 – The management of safety and health Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 With manual handling injuries amongst the most common type of injury sustained by people at work, this question sought to test the depth and breadth of knowledge of candidates with regard both to the legal requirements relating to manual handling and to the practical considerations of conducting manual handling assessments. There were some very good responses to the first part of this question.Good answers outlined the employers' duties contained in regulation 4 of the Regulations of: avoiding manual handling operations wherever possible; conducting suitable and sufficient assessments of the tasks; taking steps to reduce the risk of injury to the lowest level reasonably practicable; providing information to employees on the weig ht and weight distribution of the load; and reviewing assessments as necessary. Part (b) required candidates to describe the four factors to be considered in an assessment of manual handling operations. The four factors sought, and which nearly all candidates correctly identified, were the task, the load, the environment and the individual.The Examiners awarded marks to candidates who were able to consider a wide range of issues under each, and which are listed in Column 2 of Schedule 1 of the Regulations. Therefore, when considering the task, issues such as the distance of the load from the trunk, body movements and postures required (eg twisting, stooping, stretching, excessive carrying, etc), excessive pushing or pulling, and the work rate imposed by the process, are all relevant. Similarly, a range of issues associated with the load would include its weight, bulkiness, stability, sharpness, temperature and the ease with which it can be grasped. When considering the environment, factors such as ambient temperature, floor conditions, space and lighting are important.Lastly, a suitable and sufficient assessment would consider the individual by looking at physical capabilities, health (eg fitness, pregnancy) and the requirements for special information and training. The overall standard of response to this question was extremely good and Examiners were pleased that candidates were generally able to show a clear understanding of such an important health and safety issue. Section 2 Question 2 This question required candidates to outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with workplace emergencies such as a fire, explosion, bomb scare, chemical leakage or other dangerous occurrence. Formal procedures should be established to deal with such eventualities and are a specific requirement of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1992.Responses to this question were varied with some candidates able to provide qui te reasonable answers and others merely focusing on what to do in an actual emergency (usually a fire) rather than when preparing a procedure to deal with one. Better candidates provided a wide range of considerations, including amongst many other possibilities: the identification and training requirements of persons with specific responsibilities; the layout of the premises in relation to escape routes, etc; the number of persons affected; assessment of special needs (disabled persons, children, etc); warning systems; emergency lighting; the location of shut-off valves, isolation witches, hydrants, etc; the equipment required to deal with the emergency; the location of assembly points; communication with emergency services; and the training and/or information to be provided to employees, visitors, the local community and others who might be affected. Question 3 Disappointingly, many candidates found it difficult to provide, for part (a), a clear definition of negligence, a tort inv olving a breach of the common law duty to take reasonable care. As has happened in the past, candidates sometimes confused the issue by introducing aspects of criminal liability, in particular by introducing the statutory duties under section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.For part (b), most candidates managed to provide reasonable answers that identified the three standard conditions for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence: firstly, that a duty of care is owed; secondly, that a breach of the duty occurred in that the employer failed to take reasonable care; and, thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury. An outline was required to show what each means in practice. Some candidates made use of appropriate examples for this purpose. Question 4 The overall response to this question was rather poor. It was clear that a number of candidates considered the word `reporting' solely in relation to the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases an d Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995. Others appeared to miss the reference to training and simply outlined suitable internal reporting procedures.Whilst such procedures would form part of a training session, the actual procedures did not really form part of an answer to this question. Good answers to this question referred to the need in a training session to explain the importance of reporting accidents and incidents (for legal, investigative and monitoring reasons), the types of incident that the organisation requires to be reported, the lines of reporting, how to complete internal documents and forms, and responsibilities for completing the accident book and for complying with statutory reporting duties. Question 5 This was a straightforward question where little difficulty was anticipated and, reassuringly, little appeared to have been found.Many candidates gained maximum marks by including most, if not all, of the requirements relating to: the suitability of work equipment ; training; maintenance of equipment; conformity with EU requirements; preventing contact with dangerous parts of machinery; protection against specified hazards; protection against high or low temperatures; stop and emergency stop controls; position of controls; safety of control systems; means of isolation; stability; lighting; safety of maintenance operations; and the provision of markings and warnings. Little more than this was required for the list that was asked for. A few answers went further than necessary by giving detail of the requirements, such as the means of protecting against dangerous parts.Despite much of the information being sound, no further marks were available and candidates are once again reminded to take note of the `action verb' in each question. Question 6 The HSE guide to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations draws a clear distinction between `informing' and `consulting'. Perhaps from a general understanding of the words, nearly a ll candidates, for part (i), were able to differentiate between the two. Under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, employers have a duty to inform employees (ie provide information on hazards, risks and control measures) in order to help to ensure their health and safety.This general duty is echoed in a number of Regulations made under the Act. The Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996, however, require that employers consult their employees on health and safety matters (ie listen to, and take account of, their views) before a decision is taken. The response to part (ii) was mixed, with some candidates seemingly applying a certain amount of guesswork (albeit sometimes quite intuitively) and others showing an obvious familiarity with the requirements of the Regulations. It is worth noting that the matters on which an employer must consult under these Regulations are identical to those in the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1 977.They include: the introduction of any measure at the workplace that may substantially affect employees' health and safety; the arrangements for appointing and/or nominating competent persons; the planning and organisation of health and safety training; the health and safety implications of introducing new technology; and the information that the employer is required to provide under other Regulations, such as that relating to risk assessments, preventive measures and emergency procedures. Hence, employers are obliged not only to provide information but- they must also consult their employees on the appropriateness of the information before it is given. Question 7 Health and safety performance in the workplace can be monitored using a variety of techniques and measures. This question required candidates to distinguish between those that might be described as `reactive' (assessing past failures to control risks) and those that are `proactive' (identifying non-compliance with polic y or procedures before actual harm occurs).Reactive measures include accident and ill health records, civil claims and enforcement actions whereas proactive measures include the results of safety inspections and audits, environmental monitoring records, assessments of health and safety training and the extent to which risk assessments have been completed. The general response to this question was reasonably good although some candidates appeared to confuse the two terms, which resulted in weaker answers. Question 8 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. Examiners were pleased that candidates were able to outline a wide range of issues for this human factors question, which demonstrated a good understanding of this part of the Certificate syllabus.There are many reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work and candidates achieving good marks recognised some of them, amongst others, as: unrealistic or ill-considered procedures; mental and/or physical capabilities not taken into account; inadequate training; poor organisational safety culture; complacency/lack of motivation; peer group pressure; other priorities and pressures; risks not perceived; slips and lapses; fatigue and stress; and perceived lack of consultation. Question 9 Despite previous Examiners' Reports drawing attention to the general lack of understanding of, and confusion between, the two types of occupational exposure limit (OEL), many candidates were again struggling to provide adequate answers to part (a) of this question.As a starting point, tutors should ensure that candidates are aware that OELs refer to airborne concentrations of particular substances and thus are primarily concerned with the prevention of ill-health effects by inhalation. Following this, there needs to be an understanding that a harmful substance is assigned an OES when current evidence indicates that there is no harmful effect at this level, and that average airborne conc entrations at or below the standard are considered acceptable. An MEL, however, is assigned to a substance when there are difficulties, either technical or due to lack of evidence, in establishing a level that is considered `safe'. For this reason, airborne concentrations of substances with an MEL must be as far as reasonably practicable below this maximum limit in order to minimise any ill-health effects.Excursions above an MEL must be explained and immediately controlled. Good answers to part (b) relied to an extent on candidates' explanations of an MEL in the first part, and an understanding of the serious implications of exceeding an MEL. Better responses differentiated between the immediate and longer term actions that may be necessary. Emergency procedures such as evacuation, isolation and venting of the affected area, and curtailing the process producing the contaminant, would be required immediately. Following that, an assessment should be made of the reasons for the breakdo wn in control and improvements (such as more effective ventilation) introduced.At the same time, anyone exposed to high concentrations should be the subject of special health surveillance. Question 10 The development of safe systems is an essential part of the work of those with health and safety responsibilities. It is pleasing to note that many candidates were able to offer clear, concise definitions that showed a good understanding of the term and its implications. A reasonable explanation of the term is, for example, a considered procedure for carrying out a task safely, taking into account the risks and control measures, the equipment needed, the environment, contingent requirements, and the competence and skills required of personnel.Part (b) was also well answered although there was a slight tendency for lists, which received minimal credit. Higher marks were awarded to candidates who explained the conditions that would determine the type of action that an inspector might tak e, and the effects of that action on the organisation. Possible enforcement actions are the issue of an improvement or prohibition notice, and prosecution. Credit was also given for the recognition that an inspector may give verbal or written advice and/or warning before taking more serious action. Question 11 Most candidates seemed to be familiar with the need for first-aid provision in the workplace and the factors that would determine the level of provision required.An assessment of first-aid provision involves looking at the number and level of training of first-ciders, as well as the type and location of first-aid facilities and equipment, in relation to such factors as the number and distribution of employees, the work patterns in operation (eg shiftwork), the workplace activities and risks, and the proximity of emergency services. Some candidates commendably extended their answers by considering other factors such as the special needs of young, disabled or peripatetic employe es. Paper A1 Question 1An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main cause of excessive dust levels in a workplace. (i) Identify FOUR possible indications of a dust problem that may have alerted staff to the inefficiency of the LEV system. (4)- (ii) Outline the factors that may have reduced the effectiveness of the LEV system. (8) iii) Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimise levels of airborne dust. (8) This question was designed to assess candidates' breadth of knowledge of the problem of dust in the workplace. In answering part (i), most candidates were able to identify at least three indications of a dust problem in a workplace, such as deposits of dust on people and surfaces, particles visible in the air and complaints of discomfort and irritation by the employees. Only a few referred to the results of air monitoring or actual ill-health effects. For part (ii), most candidates were able to outline at least a reasonable range of factors.Better candidates addressed both underlying factors, such as poor design and a lack of maintenance and/or periodic testing, and the more immediate factors, such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission, damaged or blocked ducting or filters, unauthorised alteration to the system, incorrect settings, a faulty fan and possible changes to the process leading to increased dust emissions. In part (iii), candidates were given the opportunity to describe methods of minimising levels of airborne dust that may be needed in addition or as an alternative to local exhaust ventilation. These could have included the cessation of the activity creating the dust, changing the process to educe the amount of dust produced, substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form, segregating or enclosing the process and damping down the dust to enable it to be removed by vacuum. Many candidates demonstrated a good understanding of th e principles by describing such methods in a hierarchical order, and almost all indicated the importance of using cleaning methods that do not disturb settled dust (ie vacuuming instead of sweeping). Some became a little carried away with the COSHH hierarchy by referring to the use of respiratory protective equipment, which may reduce personal exposures but has no effect on levels of airborne dust.Many candidates also suggested the introduction of dilution ventilation, which is an ineffective method of controlling dust and may even have the effect of distributing it more widely across the workplace. Question 2Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain roadside verges. (8) This was not a well answered question, with most candidates able to achieve only a few of the marks available for outlining some of the possible hazards arising from using a petrol-driven strimmer. Such hazards include exposure to fumes, the possibility of fire or explosion, contac t with the moving parts of the strimmer, being struck by flying stones and fragments, noise and vibration, manual handling, slips, trips and falls, the possibility of being struck by moving traffic and exposure to extreme weather conditions.Some candidates decided not to answer the question that was asked and either outlined the possible hazards arising from the use of an electric strimmer or discussed how the risks associated with the use of the equipment might be controlled. Question 3Outline the precautions to protect against electrical contact when: (i)excavating near underground cables(4) (ii)working in the vicinity of overhead power lines. (4) Part (i) of this question was answered slightly more successfully than part (ii), with better candidates referring to isolation of the supply, the identification of cable routes from plans and by the use of cable detectors, checking for service box covers, marking of cable routes on site and digging with hand-tools: rather than with a me chanical excavator. Precautions gainst overhead power lines, for part (ii), include isolation, erection of goal-post barriers to define clearance distances, clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs and bunting), ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance, with `tunnels'), the appropriate use of marshals and banksmen when there is a possibility that cranes, excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines, and the restricted use of items such as metal ladders and scaffold tubes near live lines. Examiners' were genuinely concerned by some of the precautions against high voltage electricity that were being offered by some candidates, in particular the idea that insulated footwear and tools would afford protection and that residual current . devices might be appropriate in either of the two situations. It was significant that only about half of the candidates mentioned the possibility of isolating the power supply in either part of the question.Some can didates missed the focus of the question and either concentrated on the preparation of a risk assessment or described in detail the operation of a permit-to-work system, neither of which directly affords protection against electrical contact. Question 4 (a) Outline the principles of the following types of machine guard:|| (i) fixed guard|(2)| (ii) interlocked guard. |(2)| (b) Identify TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of a fixed|| machine guard. |(4)| In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates showed they had at least a basic understanding of the principles of the most common types of guard. The majority correctly identified that a fixed guard is physically attached to the machine and normally requires a special tool to remove it.Fewer, however, specifically mentioned the fact that it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts and is not linked to the controls, motion or hazardous condition of the machine. Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the p rinciple that a machine cannot start or otherwise become dangerous until the guard is closed, and that when the machine is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be opened or opening the guard causes the machine to come to rest. Where problems did arise was in the identification of the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed guard. Candidates should have identified that the simplicity of a fixed guard means it is easy to inspect and maintain and the fact that there are no moving parts leads to increased reliability.On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no protection is afforded should it be removed and, since it is fixed and requires a special tool for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult. A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also hamper visual inspection of the machine or the work being performed. Question 5Identify FOUR possible routes of entry of toxic substances into the body and, in EACH case, describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure. (8) Most candidates successfully identified the routes of entry of toxic substances into the body as inhalation, ingestion, through the skin and by injection.Describing the circumstances in which an employee might be at risk in each case, however, proved a little more difficult. Examiners were looking for examples such as: inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (eg welding) or accidentally (eg spillage); ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (eg eating or smoking without first washing the hands); entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (eg solvents) that may be absorbed through the skin; and injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects. Question 6Outline the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when work is carried out on a pitched (sloping) ro of. (8)This question sought to test candidates' knowledge of the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when working on sloping roofs. The majority provided reasonable answers and referred to many of the relevant precautions such as the provision of safe access to the roof- and roof edge protection, the use of crawling boards or roof ladders, identifying and covering roof lights, arrangements for moving tools and materials to and from the roof, the issue and wearing of personal protective equipment such as helmets, footwear and harnesses, the employment of a trained and competent workforce, and the need to stop the work activity during adverse weather conditions.Question 7 (a)Outline SIX factors to be considered when selecting suitable eye protection for use at work. (6) (b)Identify ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of safety goggles compared with safety spectacles. (2) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates referred to the need to ensure that the type of protective equipment is appropriate for the particular hazard against which protection is required (eg chemical, impact, ultraviolet light, molten metal). In this context, reference was usually made to the need for the equipment to meet quality and safety standards, in particular that it bears a CE mark. Comfort factors were also generally identified, as was compatibility with other equipment, including prescription spectacles.Other relevant factors to be considered include durability, cost, and maintenance and training requirements. Candidates generally gained full marks for their answers to part (b) since there are several advantages and disadvantages of goggles from which only one of each was required. Advantages include the fact that goggles provide all round protection, particularly against projectiles and chemicals, and tend not to be easily displaced. Disadvantages include the increased tendency of goggles to mist up, the generally higher cost involved and the fa ct that they may be more uncomfortable than spectacles. Question 8Outline the possible risks to health and safety associated with laying paving slabs in a busy high street. (8)Examiners were looking to candidates to outline such risks as: trapped fingers, foot injuries and musculoskeletal problems from handling slabs; the possibility of being struck by traffic; injuries from the use of cutting discs (eg contact with the disc and being struck by flying particles); the effects of exposure to noise, vibration, dust and wet cement; and the increased likelihood of tripping. Even though candidates might not have had personal experience of the activity described, it was nevertheless one that could be visualised quite easily in order to identify a good range of possible risks. A few candidates, however, again seemed not to have read the question carefully enough and concentrated on the control measures, for which no marks could be awarded.Question 9Outline the measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from electrical equipment. (8) In answering this question, Examiners expected candidates to outline measures such as the proper selection of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task, pre-use inspection by the user, establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits and sockets are not overloaded, disconnecting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use, and ensuring that electric motors do not overheat (eg by checking that vents are uncovered). Additional measures include the need to uncoil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat and protecting cables from mechanical damage.Importantly, electrical equipment and systems should be subject to regular inspection, testing and maintenance by competent persons. This should ensure, for instance, that contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelihood of electrical arcing. While most candidates were able to outline some of the above measures, surprisingly few offered comprehensive answers. Of those who did identify a sufficient number of measures, some provided answers that were far too brief. For an outline, it was necessary to say something about how each measure reduces the risk of fire. Question 10(a)Identify TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. 2) (b) Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) In answering part (a) of this question, many candidates identified a variety of respiratory problems that were either non-specific or are not associated with asbestos. Pneumoconiosis and asthma were frequently given as examples. More knowledgeable candidates referred specifically to asbestosis, mesothelioma or lung cancer. Part (b) was reasonably well answered with most candidates identifying, for instance, pipe lagging, roofing materials, loft and wall insulation, sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders), and the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels and textured finishes.Fewer mentioned the possibility of gaskets, packing and plugs made of asbestos-containing materials. Question 11List EIGHT non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery. (8) This was intended to be a straightforward question that should have been answered quickly as well as giving the candidates an opportunity to gain valuable marks. The list should have included such hazards as electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, extremes of temperature, fire and explosion, hazardous substances (both by direct contact with, for instance, oils and greases and by exposure to dust and fumes) and those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues.Some candidates included in their list, or even concentrated on exclusively, various mechanical hazards, for which no marks could be given. This suggests that they had either misread the question or did not fully appreciate the distinction between mechanical and non-mechanical machinery hazards. Paper A2, Question 1A newly established company is to refurbish existing office accommodation before recruiting staff. Outline: (i)the welfare facilities that should be considered when planning the refurbishment(8) (ii)the main issues to be addressed in a general health and safety, induction programme(6) for the new staff (iii)the procedures that might be needed in order to ensure the health and safety of visitors to the premises during working hours(6)This question was generally answered quite well, probably because it was concerned with issues that were relatively straightforward and ones with which many candidates would have already been familiar. In answering part (i), candidates should have referred to the provision of sanitary conveniences, washing facilities, drinking water, eating and rest areas away from the work area, accommodation for clothing not worn at work and rest facilities for expectant and nursing mothers. Some candidates appeared not to notice that the work situa tion described was office-based and answered the question as though more dangerous activities were involved. Few offices, for instance, would be required to have locker rooms, or shower and changing facilities.In addition, a few candidates took a wider remit than was required by the question by referring to general welfare issues (eg heating, ventilation and other factors affecting comfort) rather than concentrating on the actual facilities for employee welfare. For part (ii), Examiners were looking for answers that referred to issues such as the company health and safety policy, emergency procedures, specific risks associated with the working environment, procedures for reporting incidents, first-aid arrangements, information on welfare facilities, consultation procedures and the responsibilities of employees. This part of the question seemed to cause some candidates surprising difficulty with a few able to refer to little more than fire and other emergency issues and accident repo rting.Any candidate who had visited a well-managed workplace should have had little difficulty in answering part (iii) by outlining procedures such as the initial reception process involving the registration of personal details and the issue of identification badges, the provision of information on site rules (including emergency procedures) and information on the hazards and risks within the establishment that might affect the visitor. Better candidates suggested that visitors should be supervised, and possibly escorted, at all times by a member of staff. Common to each of the three parts of the question was a requirement to provide an outline of the issues identified.It was insufficient in part (i), for instance, simply to specify ‘sanitary conveniences' without mentioning that they should be adequate in number in relation to the number of employees, separate for men and women, and well lit and ventilated. Question 2Inadequate lighting in the workplace may affect the level o f stress amongst employees. Outline EIGHT other factors associated with the physical environment that may increase, stress at work. This question required candidates to outline factors associated with the physical working environment that might increase levels of stress at work. Answers should have referred to factors such as cramped, dirty or untidy working onditions, workplace layout resulting in a lack of privacy or security, problems with glare, extremes of temperature and/or humidity, inadequate ventilation resulting in stale air (or conversely, draughty conditions), exposure to noise and vibration, inadequate welfare facilities and, for those working outside, inclement weather conditions. Despite the clear signposting, many candidates referred to psychological (eg bullying) and organisational (eg work pressures) stressors instead of restricting their answers to the physical environment as required. Question 3Explain, using an example in EACH case, the meaning of the following terms: (i) `hazard'|(2)| (ii) `risk'|(3)| (iii) `so far as is reasonably practicable'. |(3)| Examiners were disappointed, and a little surprised, to find that a significant number of candidates struggled to provide explanations of such fundamental health and safety terms.Additionally, in the case of those who did give reasonable explanations, they either then did not give examples or used inappropriate examples that suggested a lack of understanding of what had gone before. This was particularly so in relation to the term `hazard'. As far as ‘risk' was concerned, a number of candidates referred to the probability or likelihood of harm but did not expand their explanation to include the likely consequence in terms of the severity of such harm. In attempting to explain `so far is as reasonably practicable', most candidates inferred that this involves balancing risk against cost but fewer were able to go much further in explaining what this means in practical terms.Question 4In r elation to the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977, outline: (i) the functions of a trade-union appointed safety representative|(6)| (ii) the facilities that an employer may need to provide to safety || representatives. | (2)| || In answering part (i) of the question, candidates were expected to outline functions such as examining the causes of accidents, investigating complaints from employees, carrying out safety inspections, making representation to the employer, attending safety committee meetings, and representing employees in consultation with the enforcing authority and receiving information from its inspectors. There were some good answers to this part of the question where candidates were able to show their knowledge of the relevant part of the Regulations.Unfortunately, these were balanced by some very poor attempts from those who did not possess such knowledge. For part (ii), reference should have been made to the provision of facilities such as a private room in circumstances when this is necessary and access to a telephone, fax machine, photocopier and relevant reference material. Some candidates did not seem to appreciate the meaning of the word `facilities' and outlined instead the rights of safety representatives, such as those relating to training and the allocation of sufficient time to carry out their duties. Question 5 (a)Identify TWO situations where a permit-to-work system might be || considered appropriate. |(2)| b) Outline the key elements of a permit-to-work system. |(6)| For part (a), most candidates were able to identify two situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate choosing from work in confined spaces, work in flammable atmospheres, work on electrical equipment, hot work, and maintenance work on dangerous process plant or production machinery. Part (b) of the question was not so well answered and relatively few candidates were able to outline all the elements of a permit syst em, the first of which would be a description and assessment of the task to be performed (including the plant involved and the possible hazards).This will determine the need for, and nature of, other key elements – namely, the isolation of sources of energy and inlets, the additional precautions required (eg atmospheric monitoring, PPE, emergency equipment) and the duration of the permit. An essential element of a permit-to-work system is, of course, the operation of the permit itself. By means of signatures, the permit should be issued by an authorised person and accepted by the competent person responsible for the work. On completion of the work, the competent person would need to indicate on the permit that the area had been made safe in order for the permit to be cancelled by the authorised person, after which the isolations could be removed. Question 6Outline the actors that may indicate a need for health surveillance of employees in a workplace. (8) This question appear ed to cause problems for many candidates, some of whom identified particular situations where health surveillance would be appropriate rather than outlining the factors that might indicate a need for it. In answering, candidates could have chosen from a variety of factors such as ill-health and absence records, first-aid treatments, complaints from employees, the findings of risk assessments, the results of inspections or monitoring activities, changes in methods of work and the relevant requirements of current legislation and approved codes of practice.Question 7Outline FOUR advantages and FOUR disadvantages of using propaganda posters to communicate health and safety information to the workforce. (8) Posters are a commonly used medium for passing on health and safety messages to the workforce and many candidates will have used them or seen them in use. The question was generally well answered although some found more difficulty in outlining the disadvantages as opposed to the adva ntages. Advantages of posters include their relatively low cost, their flexibility, their brevity, their use in reinforcing verbal instructions or information and in providing a constant reminder of the importance of health and safety, and the potential to involve employees in their selection and hence in the message being conveyed.Disadvantages include the need to change posters on a regular basis if they are to be noticed, the fact that they may become soiled, defaced and out-of-date, and the possibility that they might appear to trivialise serious matters. There may also be an over-reliance on posters to convey health and safety information and they may be perceived by unscrupulous employers as an easy, if not particularly effective, way of discharging their health and safety obligations by shifting the responsibility onto the workforce for any accidents that may occur. Question 8 (a) Identify FOUR factors relating to the individual that might increase the risk of accidents at wo rk. (4) (b) Give reasons why maintenance operations may pose particular risks to those undertaking them. 4) This question produced a mixed response from candidates. In answering part (a), many could identify only one or two factors, most commonly the strongly linked psychological factors of attitude and motivation. Only better candidates identified additional factors such as age, lack of skill or experience, lack of familiarity (or possibly overfamiliarity) with the workplace, high stress levels, and health problems, medical conditions or physical disability/incapacity (including that brought about by alcohol or drugs). Similarly, for part (b) there were few candidates who were able to identify a range of relevant reasons for maintenance activities posing special risks.Such reasons may include the existence of new or different hazards, the lack of familiarity or experience with the tasks or equipment involved, the likelihood that the events leading to the need for maintenance and th eir contingent hazards would be unpredictable, the possibility that the maintenance operations would have to be carried out in confined spaces or other poor work environments, and the inevitable pressure on maintenance staff to complete the work in as short a time as possible in order to return to normal production. Question 9Explain the difference between HSC Approved Codes of Practice and HSE guidance, giving an example of EACH. (8) Relatively few candidates performed well on this question. Most found it difficult to explain the essential differences between the two types of document and, when examples were given, they were often vague or incorrect. Approved Codes of Practice are approved by the Health and Safety Commission with the consent of the Secretary of State and provide a recognised interpretation of how an employer may comply with relevant legislation.Although failure to comply with the provision of an ACOP is not in itself an offence, the failure may be cited in court in criminal proceedings as proof that there has been a contravention of the legislation to which the provision relates. Employees must either meet the standards contained in the ACOP or show that they have complied with an equal or better standard. A number of examples could have been cited such as the ACOPs complementing the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999. Guidance, on the other hand, is issued by the Health and Safety Executive with the intention of giving advice on good practice. The advice is generally more practically based than that contained in an ACOP. Guidance has no legal standing in a court of law.Examples of HSE guidance documents include those issued on matters such as manual handling, display screen equipment and personal protective equipment. Question 10(a)In relation to risk assessments carried out under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, explain the mea ning of the term `suitable and sufficient'. (3) (b)Outline the changes in circumstances that may require a risk assessment to be reviewed. (5) Examiners found that part (a) of this question elicited a generally poor response and few candidates were able to give an adequate explanation of the term `suitable and sufficient' in relation to risk assessment.Such an assessment should identify all significant hazards and risks, enable priorities to be set, allow the identification of the protective measures required, be appropriate to the nature of the work and be valid over a reasonable period of time. Part (b), in contrast, tended to attract some better answers, with candidates able to outline such circumstances as changes in process, work method or materials (type or quantity), the introduction of new plant or technology, new information becoming available, a change in legislation, changes in personnel (eg the employment of young or disabled persons), and when the results of monitoring (accidents, ill-health and environmental) are not as expected. Question 11Identify EIGHT measures that can be used to monitor an organisation's, health and safety performance. 8) There are various indicators that an organisation can use to assess different aspects of its health and safety performance and Examiners were looking for answers containing a mixture of both proactive and reactive measures. Reactive performance measures include accident and ill-health statistics, incidents of reported near-misses and dangerous occurrences, actions taken by the enforcement authorities and insurance claims. Proactive measures, on the other hand, might include the results of inspections and/or environmental monitoring, safety audit outcomes and the results of medical/health surveillance. Some candidates restricted their answers to the identification of monitoring methods (such as safety nspections, tours and sampling) rather than the measures that are derived from them and which can be compare d over time. This sometimes limited the number of marks that could be awarded. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1: IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1999 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed: 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. | 1|(a)|List THREE types of crane used for lifting operations. |(3)| |(b)|Outline factors to be considered when assessing the suitability of a mobile crane for a lifting operation. (7)| |(c)|Outline a procedure for the safe lifting and lowering of a load by use of a mobile crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. |(10)| |||| Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. | 2||In relation to occupational dermatitis:|| |(i)|identify TWO common causative agents|(2)| |(ii)|describe the typical symptoms of the condition |(3)| |(iii)|state the sources of information that may help to identify dermatitic substances in the workplace. |(3)| |||| 3||A pneumatic drill is to be used during extensive repair work to the floor of a busy warehouse. | |(i)|Identify by means of a labelled sketch, THREE possible transmission paths the noise from the drill could take. |(3)| |(ii)|Outline appropriate control measures to reduce the noise exposures of the operator AND the warehouse staff. |(5)| |||| 4||State the health and safety risks associated with welding operations. |(8)| |||| 5|(a)|Outline the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock. |(4)| |(b)|Describe how earthing can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock. |(4)| |||| 6||Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the us e of special footwear, explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. |(8)| |||| ||The exterior paintwork of a row of shops in a busy high street is due to be repainted. Identify the hazards associated with the work and outline the corresponding precautions to be taken. |(8)| |||| 8|(a)|Identify TWO types of non-ionising radiation, giving an occupational source of EACH. |(4)| |(b)|Outline the health effects associated with exposure to non-ionising radiation. |(4)| |||| 9||Explain the methods of heat transfer that cause the spread of fire. |(8)| |||| 10|(a)|List TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads. |(2)| |(b)|Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a load from the ground. |(6)| |||| 1||List EIGHT safe practices to be followed when using a skip for the collection and removal of waste from a construction site. |(8)| NEBOSH Certificate – June 1999 Paper A1 – Ident ifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiner’s Report Section 1 Question 1 This question was designed to test candidates' knowledge on the use and operation of cranes. Part (a) required candidates to identify three types of crane and it was envisaged that this would cause little difficulty, particularly